Hi all,
I'm listening to Clayton's "How to Build a Six Figure Copywriting Business" CD set. As usual, it's great stuff and I'd recommend it to anyone who doesn't have it. But I had a question I was hoping I could get answered here.
When Clayton talks about charging an "advance" against royalties, what is his advance against? I mean, let's say I charge a client a $10K advance. At what point should I expect to start getting royalties? After the product earns $10K in sales? After the mailing earns out (including my fee)? After they mail the equivalent of $10K in royalties (500,000 pieces x .02 royalty = $10,000)? I'm just not really clear.
Thanks
Chuck